HJS Preliminary Examination Sample Objective MCQ Paper

Solved Objective question[MCQ] paper for Preliminary Exam: Higher Judicial Service 2020- 1st Set

Objective question[MCQ] paper for Preliminary Exam: Higher Judicial Service-2nd Set

Solved Objective questions[MCQs]-Preliminary Exam: Higher Judicial Service-3rd set

Solved Objective question[MCQ] paper for Preliminary Exam: Higher Judicial Service 4th Set

1. Pre-sentence report is required to release an offender on

(A) Parole

(B) Premature release

(C) Probation

(D) Bail

Answer: (C)

2. How many High Courts are there in India?

(A) 10 to 15

(B) 15 to 20

(C) 20 to 25

(D) 25 to 30

Answer: (C)

3. Which treatise is Kautilya credited to have authored?

(A) Dharmashashtra

(B) Manusmriti

(C) Arthshashtra

(D) Ayurvigyan

Answer: (C)

4. Which among the following is an economic offence?

(A) Auto theft

(B) Robbery

(C) Embezzlement

(D) Money laundering

Answer: (D)

5-The term ‘Zero Tolerance’ is related to

(A) Policing

(B) Treatment of Drug addicts

(C) Corruption

(D) Night Patrolling

Answer: (A)

6. What is a Hypothesis?

(A) Proposition

(B) Presumption

(C) Postulate

(D) All the above

Answer: (D)

7-Which software among the following is good for research – data analysis?

(A) MS PowerPoint

(B) Adobe Reader

(C) Tally

(D) MS Excel

Answer: (D)

8. Which statistical measure brings out the dispersion of a variable in a statistical series?

(A) Rank Correlation

(B) Standard Deviation

(C) Arithmetic Mean

(D) Chi-square

Answer: (B)

9. Which country is known for the production of Cocaine?

(A) Algeria

(B) Colombia

(C) Iran

(D) Vietnam

Answer: (B)

10. Among the following which psychotropic substance is an opium derivative?

(A) Ganja

(B) Brandy

(C) Heroin

(D) Cocain

Answer: (C)

11. According to official figures, which state in India has the lowest rate of crime against Schedule Castes?

(A) Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Bihar

(C) Chhattisgarh

(D) Gujarat

Answer: (A)

12. How many members does a Child Welfare Committee under the J.J. Act have?

(A) Three members

(B) Four members

(C) Five members

(D) Six members

Answer: (C)

13. After enquiry, Juvenile Justice Board can pass orders regarding the juvenile for

(A) Admonition

(B) Probation

(C) Term in Special Home

(D) Any of the above

Answer: (D)

14. In the 19th century, which country used to burn to death those suspected to practice witchcraft?

(A) Brazil

(B) South Africa

(C) France

(D) Great Britain

Answer: (D)

15. In which state was first open-air camp or jail set up in India?

(A) Assam

(B) Gujarat

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (D)

16. Which country first started probation to offenders?

(A) Great Britain

(B) France

(C) Australia

(D) United States of America

Answer: (D)

17. Who is competent to commute death penalty to life imprisonment?

(A) Director General of Prisoners

(B) Chief Minister

(C) Prime Minister

(D) President of India

Answer: (D)

18. Which officer has to record a confession of a person if it is to be of evidentiary value?

(A) Investigating Officer

(B) Gazetted Officer

(C) Magistrate

(D) Deputy Commissioner

Answer: (C)

19. Who has authored the book, ‘The Criminal and his Victim’?

(A) Enrico Ferri

(B) Charles Goring

(C) Glueck

(D) Von Hentig

Answer: (D)

20-Under which law are crime victims belonging to Scheduled Castes and Tribes provided compensation by government?

(A) Indian Penal Code

(B) Protection of Civil Rights Act

(C) SC/ST (Prevention of the Atrocities) Act

(D) Evidence Act

Answer: (C)

21. Assertion (A): There is no international consensus as to what constitution ‘crime’, in the International arena.

Reason (R): Security international co-operation against particular states is often very difficult to achieve. Nations such as India, China among others are not even signatories to the International Criminal Court.


(A) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(C) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (B)

22. Which of the following is a form of Cyber Crime?

(A) Software

(B) Hacking

(C) Hardware

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

23. Which of the following is not a counter-terrorism policy?

(A) Increase physical security

(B) To encourage terrorism

(C) To increase powers of security forces

(D) To increase procedural security

Answer: (B)

24. Which of the following is not an original crime?

(A) Child Trafficking

(B) Smuggling of Narcotic Drugs

(C) Organ Trafficking

(D) Riot

Answer: (D)

25. Production, distribution and role of illicit drugs is called

(A) Drug trafficking

(B) Drug dependence

(C) Alcohol use

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

26- Which of the following is/are experienced by victims of crime?

(A) Physical loss

(B) Psychological impact

(C) Financial Impact

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

27. Which among the following is related to laws on obscenity and indecency?

(A) Phising

(B) Cyber-pornography

(C) Nigerian scams

(D) Stalking

Answer: (B)

28-Which of the following does the definition of crime include?

(A) Act of Commission

(B) Criminal Intention

(C) Act of Omission

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

29. Probation is

(A) Determinate sentencing

(B) Indeterminate sentencing

(C) Suspended sentencing

(D) Custodial sentencing

Answer: (C)

30. “Penal populism” is the term refers to

(A) Increasing involvement of NGOs in prison programmes

(B) Growing politicisation of crime control

(C) Dealing with increasing prison population

(D) Making punishment more popular

Answer: (B)

31-Which committee examined the after care programmes in prison?

(A) Krishna Iyer Committee

(B) Gore Committee

(C) Verma Committee

(D) Saxena Committee

Answer: (B)

32. Which among the following is not a property offence?

(A) Theft

(B) Embezzlement

(C) Arson

(D) Robbery

Answer: (C)

33- Which among the following is an economic offence?

(A) Cattle theft

(B) Riot

(C) Rape

(D) Drug adulteration

Answer: (D)

34-In the Vishakha case, the Supreme Court has laid down the guidelines related to

(A) Crimes against minorities

(B) Crimes against children

(C) Sexual harassment of women

(D) Crimes against communities

The sub-components of crime are

I. An act

II. Criminal intention

III. A law prohibitive the act

IV. Migration

Find the correct combination, using the codes given below:


(A) I, II and III are correct.

(B) I and II are correct.

(C) II and III are correct.

(D) III and IV are correct.

Answer: (A)

35. What does the Latin maxim “Ignorantia Factum” – means?

(A) Mistake of Law

(B) Mistake of Fact

(C) Mistake of Mind

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

36. Unlawful act of a child under the following age is not an offence under Indian Penal Code.

(A) 5 years

(B) 7 years

(C) 9 years

(D) 12 years

Answer: (B)

37. Which among the following has mandatory sentencing in India?

(A) Indian Penal Code

(B) Criminal Procedure Code

(C) NDPS Act


Answer: (D)

38. According to the Constitution of India, Directive Principles of State Policy are

I. Fundamental Rights

II. Guiding Principles for Good Governance.

III. Cannot be enforced by Courts.

IV. None of the above

Find the correct combination, using the codes given below:


(A) I is correct.

(B) I and III are correct.

(C) II and III are correct.

(D) IV is correct.

Answer: (C)

39. Which of the following courts has a special advisory jurisdiction?

(A) High Court

(B) Supreme Court

(C) Any Civil Court

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

40. An elder person having sex with a child is

(A) Necrophile

(B) Pedophile

(C) Sodomy

(D) Incest

Answer: (B)

41. The order for awarding compensation to a victim of crime is made under, which section of Code of Criminal Procedure?

(A) Section 357

(B) Section 375

(C) Section 315

(D) Section 351

Answer: (A)

42. Which of the following is a victimless crime?

(A) Extremist Act

(B) Prostitution

(C) Murder

(D) Rape

Answer: (B)

45. In which State or Union Territory was cellular jail located?

(A) Puducherry

(B) Goa

(C) Andaman &

(D) Daman & Diu

Answer: (C)

46. Among the following which country awards death penalty to offenders by lethal injunction?

(A) Germany

(B) United States of America

(C) Brazil

(D) Russia

Answer: (B)

47-All the proceedings under the Code of Criminal Procedure for the collection of evidence by a Police Officer is known as

(A) Interrogation

(B) Investigation

(C) Charge Sheet

(D) All of the above

Answer: (B)

48-. At the Police-Station, case diary is usually used as

(A) An Oral evidence

(B) An aid to the court

(C) An aid to the victim

(D) None of the above

49-In which of the following cases free and fair election is recognized as basic structure of Indian Constitution?

(A) Indira Gandhi V. Raj Narayan

(B) Minerva Mills V. Union of India

(C) Both (A) and (B) above

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

50. Which one of the following cases is not related to the doctrine of severability?

(A) A.K. Gopalan V. State of Madras

(B) R.M.D.C. V. Union of India

(C) Minerva Mills Ltd. V. Union of India

(D) Kihota Holohan V. Zachithu

Answer: (C)

51-Which of the following Articles providing for fundamental rights cannot be suspended during the Proclamation of Emergency?

(A) Articles 14 and 15

(B) Articles 19 and 20

(C) Articles 20 and 21

(D) Articles 21 and 22

Answer: (C)

Clause (k) to Article 51-A was added by

(A) The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act.

(B) The Constitution (85th Amendment) Act.

(C) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act.

(D) The Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act.

Answer: (C)

52. Doctrine of Separation of Powers was systematically formulated by

(A) Plato

(B) Montesquieu

(C) Dicey

(D) Aristotle

Answer: (B)

53. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(a) Abuse of discretion 1. Rule of Law

(b) Equality before law 2. Lack of Power

(c) Delegated legislation 3. Check and Balance

(d) Separation of powers 4. Ultra-vires


(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 1 2 4 3

(C) 3 3 2 1

(D) 4 4 1 2

Answer: (A)

54. Writ of Mandamus may be issued to

(A) Compel the judicial or quasi-judicial authorities only to act.

(B) Compel the authority to act.

(C) Compel the authority, how to act.

(D) Compel a private person.

Answer: (B)

55. Doctrine of Locus Standi means

(A) Writ can be filed by any person.

(B) Power of courts for judicial review.

(C) Right of petitioner to file the writ petition.

(D) Discretion of administrative authority.

Answer: (C)

56- Writ of Quo Warranto can be issued

(A) against any person.

(B) against public officer, who wish to assume the office.

(C) against public officer, who is holding public office.

(D) against public officer, who has ceased to hold the office.

Answer: (C)

57. Which of the following statement is not true?

(A) Possession is a nine point of law.

(B) Possession is an evidence of ownership.

(C) Possession is protected till someone else provided a better title in himself.

(D) Possession once lost cannot be regained.

Answer: (D)

58- The physical element of possession is also called as

(A) Ratio decidendi

(B) Corpus decidendi

(C) Corpus possessionis

(D) Animus possidendi

Answer: (C)

59-In which of the offences the actual commission of offence is not punished but it’s attempt is punished?

(A) When the execution of murder falls short.

(B) Causing miscarriage.

(C) Suicide.

(D) Exposure with intention to abandon the child.

Answer: (C)

60. An offender claiming exemption of criminal liability under Section 84 of Indian Penal Code must be incapable of knowing

(A) the nature of the act

(B) the act was contrary to law

(C) the act was wrong

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

61. There is no right of private defence against an act done, by any person under the direction of a public servant but is subjected to fulfilment of certain condition like

(A) the act must be done in good faith.

(B) the direction was not strictly justifiable by law.

(C) The directed act has not been generated reasonable apprehension of death.

(D) All of the above.

Answer: (D)

62. The Indian Penal Code makes a broad distinction between principal wrong doer and an abettor and does not recognize the accessory except in case of harboring when

(A) Instigating a person to commit an offence.

(B) Engaging in a conspiracy to commit an offence.

(C) Intentionally aiding a person to commit an offence.

(D) None of the above.

Answer: (D)

63. In order to attract application of Sec.304-B of Indian Penal Code it is essential that the death has occurred within ______.

(A) Seven years but as engagement is part of marriage the period of limitation should be counted from that date.

(B) Actual death should have occurred within seven years of her marriage.

(C) Actual cruelty should have been for demand of dowry whether or not death resulted after seven years of marriage.

(D) Depends upon possibility to ruling out an accidental death within the period of seven years.

Answer: (B)

64. A police officer arrested a person without warrant who was drunk and creating disturbance in a public street. The action of police amounts to ______.

(A) Detention

(B) Wrongful confinement

(C) Wrongful restrain

(D) None of them

Answer: (B)

65- The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 shall have precedence over other laws and therefore, the provisions of the Act shall have effect despite the inconsistency with the provisions of any other enactment. However it is subject to

(A) The Mines Act, 1952

(B) Atomic Energy Act, 1962

(C) The Factories Act, 1948

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

66. Which of the following is popularly known as “Forest Conservation Case”?

(A) Environment Awareness Forum Vs. State of J & K, 1999 1 SCC 210

(B) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulk Pad Vs. Union of India, 1997 2 SCC 267

(C) M.C. Metha Vs. Union of India, 1992 1 SCC 358

(D) Tata Engineering & Locomotive Co. Ltd Vs State of Bihar, 2000 5 SCC 346

Answer: (B)

67. The increased noise level can cause loss of hearing and irreversible changes in nervous system. Mention the Safe Noise Level fixed by the World Health Organisation.

(A) 80 decibels

(B) 90 decibels

(C) 60 decibels

(D) 45 decibels

Answer: (D)

68- The United Nations proclaimed which of the following day as the “International Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation Decade”?

(A) 10th Nov. 1980

(B) 12th Sept. 1980

(C) 10th Nov. 1990

(D) 12th Sept. 1990

Answer: (A)

69- The Central or State Board under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 is required to meet at least

(A) every one month

(B) every two months

(C) every three months

(D) every six months

Answer: (C)

70. The “precautionary principle” and the “polluter pays principle” are part of the Environmental Law of our country.

(A) True

(B) False

(C) Partly true and partly false

(D) None

Answer: (A)

71. In which of the following case the question of constitutional validity of Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, came for consideration for the first time?

(A) Saroja Rani V. Sundarshan Kumar

(B) Bipin Chandra V. Prabhavati

(C) Savitry Pandey V. Premchandra Pandey

(D) Lachman V. Meena

Answer: (A)

72. In which of the following case, the court held that “Dower is a sale-price of women”?

(A) Humara Begam’s case

(B) Abdul Kadir’s case

(C) Subrunnissan’s case

(D) Shah Bano’s case

Answer: (C)

73. “Single Act of adultery” is a ground for

(A) Judicial Separation

(B) Divorce

(C) Divorce and Judicial Separation both

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

74- Dower in Muslim Law is

I. Dowry

II. An obligation imposed upon husband as a mark of respect for wife.

III. Sale price of woman.

IV. Consideration for marriage.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:


(A) I, III and IV are correct.

(B) II and III are correct.

(C) II and IV are correct.

(D) I and III are correct.

Answer: (C)

77. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(Provisions) (Sections of Hindu Marriage Act, 1956)

(i) Registration of Hindu Marriages. (a) Section 13 B

(ii) Divorce by Mutual Consent. (b) Section 16

(iii) Legitimacy of children of void and voidable marriages. (c) Section 8

(iv) Divorced persons when may marry again (d) Section 15


(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

Answer: (C)

78. The movement for protection of human rights gained greater momentum after ______.

(A) American War of Independence.

(B) Second World War

(C) Atlantic Charter, 1941

(D) The European Convention on Human Rights, 1950

Answer: (B)

79-. In which of the following cases the jurisprudential basis of the principle to award compensation for violating Human-rights has been laid down by the Supreme Court?

(A) Visakha Vs. State of Rajasthan.

(B) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India.

(C) Ratlam Municipality Vs Vardhichand.

(D) Nilabhati Behra Vs. State of Orissa.

Answer: (D)

80- In which of the case, the Supreme Court held that it is desirable that “all marriages should be Compulsorily Registered in the State, where they are solemnized”?

(A) S. Nagalingamvs. Sivagani AIR (2001) SC 3576

(B) Shanti Dev Berma vs. K.P. Devi AIR (1991) SC 816

(C) SeemaVs Ashwin Kumar AIR 2006 SC 1158

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

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