1. An executing court cannot determine the questions relating to which of the following?
(A) Execution of decree
(B) Discharge of decree
(C) Satisfaction of decree
(D) Modification of decree
Ans:-D
2. A person against whom summons has been issued may be compelled under Sec. 32 of C.P.C. to attend by—
1. Issue of a warrant
2. Attachment and sale of his property
3. Imposing a fine
4. Ordering him to furnish security for his appearance
Select the correct answer with the help of the code given below—
Code:
(A) l and 4
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Ans:-C
3. Provision for interpleader suit is contained in which of the following sections of C.P.C.?
(A) Section 87
(B) Section 88
(C) Section 89
(D) Section 90
Ans:-B
4. Which one of the following is not a suit relating to immovable property?
(A) Suit for recovery of immovable property
(B) Suit for partition of immovable property
(C) Suit for redemption of mortgaged property
(D) Suit for rent in respect of immovable property
Ans:-D
5. The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002 came into force on—
(A) 1St April, 2002
(B) 1st June, 2002
(C) 6th June, 2002
(D) 1st July, 2002
Ans:-D
6. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain, the place of institution of suit shall be decided according to the provision of—
(A) Section 17 of C.P.C.
(B) Section 18 of C.P.C.
(C) Section 19 of C.P.C.
(D) Section 20 of C.P.C.
Ans:-B
7. In which of the following provisions ‘mesne profit’ has been defined in the C.P.C.?
(A) Section 2(4)
(B) Section 2(8)
(C) Section 2(12)
(D) Section 2(14)
Ans:-C
8. The period of limitation within which defendant shall submit his wrtn statement is—
(A) 30 days from service of summons
(B) 40 days from service of summons
(C) 60 days from service of summons
(D) 90 days from service of summons
Ans:-A
9. In which of the following writs, the doctrine of res judicata is not applicable?
(A) Certiorari
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo Warranto
(D) Habeas Corpus
Ans:-D
10. Which one of the following properties is liable to attachment and sale in the execution of a decree?
(A) Right to future maintenance
(B) A promissory note
(C) Book of account
(D) A right of personal service
Ans:-B
11. Which one of the following is not a suit of civil nature under C.P.C.?
(A) A suit against deprivation from attending social functions
(B) A suit for arrears of salary
(C) A suit for right of burial
(D) A suit for restitution of conjugal rights
Ans:-A
12. Which one of the following does not find a place under the provisions of Sec. 94, C.P.C. relating to supplemental proceedings?
(A) Arrest before judgement
(B) Attachment before judgement
(C) Temporary injunction
(D) Appointment of executors
Ans:-A
13. Which one of the following is not required in filing a representative suit under Order 1Rule 8 of the C.P.C.?
(A) Numerous parties
(B) Same interest
(C) Leave of the court
(D) Written permission of those who are being represented
Ans:-D
14. The provision for the institution of suits is given in which of the following sections of C.P.C.?
(A) Section 26
(B) Section 30
(C) Section 28
(D) Section 25
Ans:-A
15. A right to sue for damages is—
(A) An actionable claim
(B) Not an actionable claim
(C) Not only a mere right to sue
(D) Transferable
Ans:-B
16. The doctrine of part performance as given in Sec. 53-A of T.P. Act is—
1. A statutory right
2. An equitable right
3. Available in defence
Code:
(A) l and 3
(B) l and 2
(C) 2
(D) 2 and 3
Ans:-D
17. Assertion (A): Property is a comprehensive term and includes copyright.
Reason (R) : Transfer of property Act deals with all kinds of property including patents.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below—
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-B
18. Which of the following combinations are correctly matched?
1. Mesne profit — Actionable Claim
2. Claim of a Muslim wife for unpaid dower — Actionable Claim
3. Unsecured debt — Actionable Claim
4. Profit under a sale of goods contract – Actionable Claim
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Code:
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) l and 4
Ans:-A
19. Remedy of ‘foreclosure’ is available in which one of the following mortgages?
(A) Usufructuary mortage
(B) Simple mortgage
(C) Mortgage by condition sale
(D) English mortage
Ans:-C
20. Which one of the f6llowing is not an essential element of sale?
(A) Parties
(B) Subject matter
(C) Transfer or conveyance
(D) Payment of price in cash
Ans:-D
21. ‘Rule against double possibilities’ was recognised in which one of the following cases?
(A) Girjesh Dutt V/s Datadin
(B) Whitby V/s Mitchell
(C) Ardeshir V/s Dadabhoy
(D) Sopher V/s Administrator General of Bengal
Ans:-B
22. Which one of the following sections of T.P. Act deals with doctrine of ‘substituted
security’?
(A) Section—68
(B) Section—70
(C) Section—71
(D) Section—73
Ans:-C
23. Which is correct answer in the following?
(A) Section 60 of T.P. Act is enforceable on mortagage decrees
(B) Sale or purchase agreements are saleable properties and liable for attachment
(C) ‘Hereditary profession’ is liable for attachment
(D) Motor pump which is used in irrigation is liable for attachment
Ans:-A
24. Ram Coomar Kundoo V/s Mc Queen (1872) is related to—
(A) Lis pendens
(B) Ostensible owner
(C) Part performance
(D) Mortgage
Ans:-B
25. The principle of the maxim “nemo dat quad non habet” is incorporated in which of the following sections of T.P. Act?
(A) Sections 41, 42, 43 and 44
(B) Sections 41, and 42
(C) Sections 41 and
(D) Sections 41 and 43
Ans:-A
26. Doctrine of Marshalling has been provided in which of the following sections of the
T.P. Act?
(A) Sections 56 and 81
(B) Sections 56 and 82
(C) Sections 56, 81, 82
(D) Sections 81 and 82
Ans:-A
27. Section 58 (a) of the T.P. Act defines—
(A) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgagee and mortgage money
(B) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgagee and mortgage deed
(C) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgagee, mortgage money and mortgage deed
(D) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgage money and mortgage deed
Ans:-C
28. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, a mother is—
(A) Entitled to live along with her son’s family
(B) Not entitled to live along with her son’s family
(C) Morally entitled to her son’s care
(D) Entitled to have separate accommodation from her son
Ans:-D
29. Which of the following ancient forms of marriages were not approved by Hindu Law?
1. Gandharva
2. Arsha
3. Prajapatya
4. Asura
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) l and 4
Ans:-D
30. A boy of 17 years marries a girl of 15 years. The marriage is—
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid and not punishable
(D) Valid and punishable
Ans:-D
31. (A) marries ‘B’, the widow of his elder brother. The marriage is—
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) None of these
Ans:-B
32. An adoption made by a Hindu male without the consent of his wife is—
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) Invalid
Ans:-A
33. Coparcenary property of a Hindu—
1. Devolves by succession
2. Devolves by survivorship
3. Can be partitioned
4. Cannot be partitioned
Select the correct answer with the help of code give below—
Code:
(A) l and 2
(B) 2 and3
(C) l and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Ans:-B
34. The statement “While there is no rose which has no thorn but if what you hold is all thorn and no rose, better throw it sway” relates to-
(A) Restitution of conjugal rights
(B) Judicial separation
(C) Divorce by mutual consent
(D) Irretrievable break-down of marriage theory of divorce
Ans:-C
35. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 a female Hindu has the capacity to take a son or daughter in adoption if—
(A) She is not married
(B) She is married
(C) She is widow and has no son or daughter but has a widowed daughter-in-law
(D) She cannot adopt at all
Ans:-A
36. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 contains the provision regarding divorce in—
(A) Section 10
(B) Section 11
(C) Section 13
(D) Section 15
Ans:-C
37. Which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act provides for the restitution of conjugal
Rights?
(A) Section 9
(B) Section 10
(C) Section 12
(D) Section 13
Ans:-A
38. Which one of the following is not included in the term ‘Hindu’ used in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) Sikhs
(B) Jams
(C) Parsis
(D) Buddhists
Ans:-C
39. A marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 between two persons within prohibited degrees of relationship is—
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) Irregular
Ans:-B
40. Adultery by a Hindu husband is—
(A) Ground of divorce only
(B)Not a ground of divorce
(C)Ground of judicial separation only
(D)Ground of divorce and Judicial separation of the both
Ans:-D
41. The natural guardian of a minor Hindu boy is—
(A) Only mother
(B) Only father
(C) Grand father
(D) Father and mother both
Ans:-D
42. Which one is not a source of Muslim Law?
(A) The Quran
(B) Shariat
(C) Hadis
(D) Ijmaa
Ans:-B
43. On the ground of fosterage a Muslim marriage is—
(A) Void (Batil)
(B) Vaild (Sahih)
(C) Irregular (Fasid)
(D) Muta
Ans:-A
44. Which of the following are sources of Muslim Law ?
(A) Quran
(B) Ijmaa
(C) Kiyas (Qiyas)
(D) All the above
Ans:-D
45. The legal guardian of a muslim minor female is—
(A) Father
(B) Grandfather
(C) Mother
(D) Maternal uncle
Ans:-C
46. Which one of the following is not essential for a valid marriage under Muslim Law?
(A) Offer and acceptance
(B) Competent parties
(C) Fosterage
(D) Free consent
Ans:-C
47. Dower in Muslim Law is—
1. Dowry
2. An obligation imposed upon the husband as a mark of respect for wife
3. Consideration for marriage
4. A legal right of the wife
Select the correct answer by using the code given below—
Code:
(A) 1,3 and 4
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2,3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3
Ans:-C
48. Talak-ul-biddat is—
(A) Complete and irrevocable divorce
(B) Incomplete and irrevocable divorce
(C) Complete and revocable divorce
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
49. In respect of family relations, the law applicable in India is—
(A) Secular law in India
(B) Statutory law
(C) Religious law
(D) Personal law of the parties
Ans:-D
50. Under the Constitution of India, all aspects of family law are in the—
(A) Union list
(B) State list
(C) Concurrent list
(D) None of the above
Ans:-C
