MCQs on Specific Relief Act, 1963 (as amended up to 2018) 1st Set

High-yield objective-type questions (with 4 options each) on the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (as amended up to 2018), specially curated for Judicial Services/PCSs (J)/Civil Judge/HJS examinations. These cover all important sections, recent amendments, landmark judgments, and frequently asked concepts.

Huma Arham

1. The Specific Relief Act, 1963 came into force on:
(a) 13th December 1963 (b) 1st March 1964 (c) 1st January 1964 (d) 1st April 1964

2. Specific relief can be granted for enforcing:
(a) Penal laws (b) Individual civil rights (c) Public duties (d) Statutory rights only

3. Under Section 4, specific relief cannot be granted for enforcing:
(a) A contractual obligation (b) A penal law (c) A trust (d) Possession of property

4. A suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 must be filed within:
(a) 6 months from dispossession (b) 1 year (c) 3 years (d) 12 years

5. A suit under Section 6 can be filed against:
(a) A lawful owner (b) The Government (c) Any person who dispossessed otherwise than in due course of law (d) A co-owner

6. No appeal or review lies against a decree passed in a suit under:
(a) Section 5 (b) Section 6 (c) Section 7 (d) Section 9

7. Section 6 suit can be filed by a person dispossessed or by any person:
(a) Claiming through him (b) Having better title (c) In lawful possession earlier (d) All of the above

8. Possession under Section 6 can be recovered notwithstanding:
(a) Any other title set up (b) Adverse possession (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None

9. Recovery of specific movable property is governed by:
(a) Section 6 (b) Section 7 (c) Section 8 (d) Section 5

10. Presumption under Explanation to Section 8 operates in favour of adequacy of monetary compensation unless proved otherwise in cases of:
(a) Unique goods (b) Ordinary goods (c) Perishable goods (d) None

11. After the 2018 amendment, specific performance is:
(a) Discretionary (b) A statutory right subject to Sections 11(2), 14 and 16 (c) Never granted (d) Granted only for immovable property

12. Which of the following contracts cannot be specifically enforced after 2018 amendment?
(a) Contract involving continuous duty court cannot supervise (b) Determinable contracts (c) Where substituted performance obtained (d) All of the above

13. Substituted performance is provided under:
(a) Section 20 (b) Section 21 (c) Section 16 (d) Section 14

14. Notice period required before obtaining substituted performance is:
(a) 15 days (b) 30 days (c) 45 days (d) No notice required

15. Once substituted performance is obtained under Section 20:
(a) Specific performance can still be claimed (b) Specific performance is barred (c) Only damages can be claimed (d) None

16. Section 20A restricts grant of injunction in contracts relating to:
(a) Movable property (b) Infrastructure projects (c) Family settlement (d) Trust

17. Special Courts for infrastructure contracts are designated under:
(a) Section 20A (b) Section 20B (c) Section 20C (d) Section 21

18. Suit under Specific Relief Act relating to infrastructure project must be disposed within:
(a) 6 months (b) 12 months (extendable by 6 months) (c) 24 months (d) No time limit

19. Readiness and willingness must be proved by the plaintiff under Section 16(c) as amended in:
(a) 1963 (b) 2018 (c) 2002 (d) 1976

20. A plaintiff who has obtained substituted performance is barred from specific performance under Section:
(a) 16(a) (b) 14(a) (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None

21. A contract dependent on personal qualifications of parties:
(a) Can be specifically enforced (b) Cannot be specifically enforced (c) Can be enforced with compensation (d) None

22. Liquidated damages clause is not a bar to specific performance if the sum was named only to:
(a) Secure performance (b) Give option to pay money (c) Penalise (d) None

23. Section 10 after 2018 amendment makes specific performance enforceable subject to exceptions in:
(a) Sections 11(2), 14, 16 (b) Sections 14, 20, 21 (c) Sections 20A, 20B (d) Section 25

24. Who among the following cannot obtain specific performance?
(a) Assignee of a contract involving personal skill (b) New LLP after amalgamation (c) Promoters of company after incorporation (d) Reversioner

25. A contract made by trustee in excess of his powers:
(a) Can be specifically enforced (b) Cannot be specifically enforced (c) Can be enforced with variation (d) None

26. Part performance of contract can be specifically enforced if unperformed part is small and compensable under:
(a) Section 12(1) (b) Section 12(2) (c) Section 12(3) (d) Section 12(4)

27. Rights of purchaser against vendor with imperfect title are given in:
(a) Section 12 (b) Section 13 (c) Section 14 (d) Section 15

28.Rectification of instrument is permissible when there is:
(a) Fraud or mutual mistake (b) Unilateral mistake (c) Illegality (d) All

29. Rescission may be refused if plaintiff has ratified the contract under Section:
(a) 27(2)(a) (b) 27(2)(b) (c) 27(2)(c) (d) 27(2)(d)

30. Cancellation of instrument is governed by:
(a) Section 31 (b) Section 27 (c) Section 34 (d) Section 26

31. Declaratory decree binds:
(a) Whole world (b) Parties and persons claiming through them (c) Only plaintiff (d) Only defendant

32. Proviso to Section 34 bars declaration when plaintiff:
(a) Can seek further relief but omits (b) Has no legal character (c) Is trustee (d) None

33. Perpetual injunction is granted under:
(a) Section 37 (b) Section 38 (c) Section 39 (d) Section 40

34. Mandatory injunction is provided under:
(a) Section 38 (b) Section 39 (c) Section 40 (d) Section 41

35. Injunction cannot be granted to prevent breach of a contract which cannot be specifically enforced under Section:
(a) 41(e) (b) 41(h) (c) 42 (d) 38

36. Section 42 allows injunction for negative part of contract even if affirmative part cannot be enforced if:
(a) Plaintiff has performed his part (b) Contract is void (c) Defendant is minor (d) None

37. Damages in lieu of injunction can be claimed under:
(a) Section 40 (b) Section 21 (c) Section 38 (d) Both (a) & (b)

38. Section 41(ha) bars injunction if it impedes:
(a) Infrastructure project (b) Family settlement (c) Trust (d) Partnership

39. Section 14A empowers court to:
(a) Engage experts (b) Grant interim relief (c) Appoint receiver (d) All

40. Section 25 applies provisions of specific performance to:
(a) Awards not under Arbitration Act, 1996 (b) All arbitral awards (c) Only family settlements (d) None

Answers to Questions 1–40

1. (b) 1st March 1964
2. (b) Individual civil rights
3. (b) A penal law
4. (a) 6 months from dispossession
5. (c) Any person who dispossessed otherwise than in due course of law (Not against Government – Section 6(2)(b))
6. (b) Section 6
7. (a) Claiming through him (amended 2018)
8. (a) Any other title set up
9. (b) Section 7
10. (a) Unique goods (clauses (b) & (c) of Section 8)
11. (b) A statutory right subject to Sections 11(2), 14 and 16 (2018 amendment removed discretion)
12. (d) All of the above (Section 14 after 2018 amendment)
13. (a) Section 20
14. (b) 30 days
15. (b) Specific performance is barred (Section 20(3))
16. (b) Infrastructure projects (Section 20A)
17. (b) Section 20B
18. (b) 12 months (extendable by 6 months) – Section 20C
19. (b) 2018
20. (c) Both (a) & (b) – Sections 14(a) & 16(a)
21. (b) Cannot be specifically enforced – Section 14(c)
22. (a) Secure performance – Section 23
23. (a) Sections 11(2), 14, 16
24. (a) Assignee of a contract involving personal skill (proviso to Section 15(b))
25. (b) Cannot be specifically enforced – Section 11(2)
26. (b) Section 12(2)
27. (b) Section 13
28. (a) Fraud or mutual mistake – Section 26
29. (a) 27(2)(a)
30. (a) Section 31
31. (b) Parties and persons claiming through them – Section 35
32. (a) Can seek further relief but omits – Proviso to Section 34
33. (b) Section 38
34. (b) Section 39
35. (a) 41(e)
36. (a) Plaintiff has performed his part – Section 42
37. (a) Section 40
38. (a) Infrastructure project – Section 41(ha)
39. (a) Engage experts – Section 14A
40. (a) Awards not under Arbitration Act, 1996 – Section 25