Law Question Papers

Objective question(MCQs)- Constitution of India-1st Set

1- Clause (4) of Article 15 has been added to the Constitution by

(A) The Constitution First Amendment Act.
(B) The Constitution Second Amendment Act
(C) The Constitution Fourth Amendment Act.
(D) The Constitution Sixth Amendment Act.

Answer: (A)

2- The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India as per

(A) Article 40
(B) Article 43
(C) Article 44
(D) Article 48

Answer: (C)

3- In India sovereignty lies with

(A) The Constitution
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) The Parliament
(D) The People

Answer: (D)

4- The Supreme Court of India formulated the doctrine of eclipse in

(A) Bhikaji Narain Dhakras Vs State of
(B) Bashesharnath Vs Income Tax Commissioner.
(C) State of W.B. Vs Anwar Ali Sarkar
(D) Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India

Answer: (A)

BulletWB Higher Judicial Service Preliminary Exam Paper-2020 with answer

5- The satisfaction of the President means the satisfaction of the Council of Ministers and not his personal satisfaction, held in

(A) Samsher Singh Vs State of Punjab
(B) U.N. RaoVs Indira Gandhi
(C) Ram Jawaya Kapoor Vs State of Punjab
(D) Sardar Lal Vs Union Government

Answer: (A)

6- The Concurrent List was described as a ‘Twilight Zone’, as it were for both the Union and the States are competent to legislate in this field without coming in to conflict” is stated by

(A) Basu, D.D.
(B) Dicey, A.V.
(C) Pyle, M.V.
(D) Ambedkar, B.

Answer: (C)

7- Article 360 has been invoked

(A) Only one time.
(B) two times.
(C) three times.
(D) Never invoked

Answer: (D)

8- The Supreme Court held in which of the following cases that preamble is not the part of the Constitution of India

(A) Berubari case
(B) A. K. Gopalan case
(C) Balaji Case
(D) Minerva Mill’s case

Answer: (A)

9- Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the

(A) 75th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
(B) 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
(C) 77th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
(D) 78th Amendment to the Constitution of India.

Answer: (C)

10- The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wild life of the country is

(A) Directive Principle of State Policy
(B) Fundamental National Policy
(C) Fundamental Duty of a Citizen
(D) Both Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duty of a Citizen

Answer: (D)

11- Originally the Supreme Court consisted of a Chief Justice and

(A) Seven other judges
(B) Twelve other judges
(C) Thirteen other judges
(D) Fifteen other judges

Answer: (A)

12- A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding

(A) Three months
(B) Six
(C) Nine months
(D) Twelve months

Answer: (D)

13- The President’s rule under Article 356 of the Constitution of India remains valid in the State for maximum period of

(A) One month
(B) Three months
(C) Six months
(D) One year

Answer: (B)

14- The power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution of India is a constituent power laid down in
Article 368 by

(A) Twenty Fourth Amendment Act
(B) Twenty Sixth Amendment Act
(C) Forty Second Amendment Act
(D) Forty Fourth Amendment Act

Answer: (A)

15- Social, economic and political Justice is

(A) an idea enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India
(B) guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
(C) a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into consideration while making enactments
(D) guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the High Courts and Supreme Court

Answer: (A)

16- Without paying proper remuneration, labour taken from the prisoners is ‘forced labour’ and violation of

(A) Art. 20 of the Constitution of India
(B) Art. 21 of the Constitution of India
(C) Art. 22 of the Constitution of India
(D) Art. 23 of the Constitution of India

Answer: (D)

17- Art. 51A of the Constitution of India provides for the Fundamental Duties of

(A) Citizens of India
(B) Public Servants
(C) All those who run public and private sectors
(D) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers

Answer: (A)

18- The appropriate writ issued by Supreme Court to quash the appointment of a person to a public office is

(A) Certiorari
(B) Mandamus
(C) Prohibition
(D) Quo-Warranto

Answer: (D)

19- The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a

(A) Legislative power
(B) Executive power
(C) Quasi-judicial power
(D) Judicial power

Answer: (A)

20- The jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by

(A) The President of India
(B) The Parliament by resolution
(C) The Parliament by Law
(D) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India

Answer: (C)

21- At the first instance, the President can issue a proclamation of financial emergency for a period

(A) Fifteen days
(B) Two months
(C) One month
(D) Six months

Answer: (B)

22- “It is likely that free India may befederal India, though in any event there would be a great deal of Unitary Control.” This statement was made by

(A) Sir Alladi Krishna Swami Iyyer
(B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(C) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

Answer: (C)

23- Judicial Review in the Constitution of India is based on

(A) Precedents and conventions
(B) Rule of law
(C) Due process of law
(D) Procedure established by law

Answer: (D)

24. The Constitution of India embodies the parliamentary form of government because:

(A) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

(B) The Council of Ministers is responsible to Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

(C) The President, the head of the executive, is answerable to Parliament.

(D) The Prime Minister, the Head of the Cabinet, is accountable to Parliament.

Answer: (A)

25- The Supreme Court held that Election Commissioners cannot be placed on par with the Chief Election Commissioner in terms of power and authority in the following case:

(A) S.S. Dhannoa Vs Union of India

(B) T.N. Seshan Vs Union of India

(C) A.C. Jose Vs Sivan Pillai

(D) Venkatachalam Vs A. Swamickan

Answer: (A)

26- The maximum interval between the two sessions of each House of Parliament is

(A) Three months

(B) Four months

(C) Five months

(D) Six months

Answer: (D)

27-. The Supreme Court observed that “Parliamentary proceedings are not subject to Fundamental Rights” in the following case:

(A) Keshav Singh Vs Speaker, U.P.

(B) Gunapati Vs Habibul Hasan

(C) M.S.M. Sharma Vs Srikrishna Sinha

(D) State of Punjab Vs Satpal Dang

Answer: (C)

28- For the purpose of creating a new State in India an amendment to the Constitution of India must be passed by

(A) 2/3rd majority of the members of both Houses of Parliament present and voting.

(B) 2/3rd majority of the members of both Houses of Parliament and ratification by not less than 2/3rd majority of the States.

(C) A simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than half of the States.

(D) A simple majority by the Parliament.

Answer: (D)

29- The word ‘Secular’ was added in the Preamble to the Constitution of India by

(A) First Amendment Act

(B) Seventh Amendment Act

(C) Forty-Second Amendment Act

(D) Forty-Fourth Amendment Act

Answer: (C)

30- Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of

(A) Religion, race and caste only.

(B) Religion, caste and sex only.

(C) Religion, caste, sex and place of birth only.

(D) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.

Answer: (D)

31- Which provision of the Constitution imposes a duty on the Union to ensure that the Government of every State is carrying on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution?

(A) Article 352

(B) Article 355

(C) Article 356

(D) Article 360

Answer: (B)

32- ‘Right to life’ under Article 21 of the Constitution does not include ‘right to die’. This observation was made by the Supreme Court in

(A) P. Rathinam V. Union of India

(B) Gian Kaur V. State of Punjab

(C) Both (A) and (B) above.

(D) None of the above.

Answer: (B)

33- A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office on the ground(s) of

(A) Proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

(B) Violation of the Constitution.

(C) Both (A) and (B) above.

(D) None of the above.

Answer: (A)

34- Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List, provided it is in the

(A) Public interest

(B) National interest

(C) Both (A) and (B) above

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

35-The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under Article :

(A) 125

(B) 352

(C) 226

(D) 324

Answer: (D)

Objective question(MCQs)-Constitution of India-2nd Set

Solved Objective Question(MCQs)- Human Rights – 1st Set

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